People, Development and Environment- Answer keys NET/SET

People, Development and Environment- Answer keys Q1. Answer: d Explanation: The correct layers of the atmosphere are Troposphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere, and Mesosphere. Lithosphere is not part of the atmosphere. Q2. Answer: c Explanation: The Ionosphere enables radio transmission because it contains ionized particles that reflect radio waves. Q3. Answer: b Explanation: The Mesosphere is the layer where meteors burn upon entry. It starts around 50 km above sea level. Q4. Answer: b Explanation: Commercial planes fly in the Stratosphere as it's calm, with less turbulence than the Troposphere. Q5. Answer: A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i Explanation: Lithosphere = Stone, Atmosphere = Air, Hydrosphere = Water, Biosphere = Life. Q6. Answer: b Explanation: The Ozone layer, which blocks harmful UV rays, is located in the Stratosphere. Q7. Answer: d Explanation: Weather happens in the Troposphere, not the Mesosphere, which is too high and cold for clouds or storms. Q8. Answer: a Explanation: Both statements are true. The Thermosphere gets very hot because of absorbed solar radiation despite thin air. Q9. Answer: a Explanation: The SDGs are interconnected, so an integrated approach is necessary to achieve them effectively. Q10. Answer: b Explanation: There were 8 Millennium Development Goals (MDGs), launched by the UN in 2000. Q11. Answer: b Explanation: The MDGs aimed to be achieved by the year 2015. Q12. Answer: c Explanation: Goal 4 of the SDGs is about ensuring inclusive and equitable quality education. Q13. Answer: b Explanation: Quality education was not one of the MDGs—it was introduced under the SDGs. Q14. Answer: c Explanation: SDG 13 focuses on Climate Action. Q15. Answer: c Explanation: Promoting regional conflicts is not part of the UNDP Strategic Plan. Q16. Answer: d Explanation: There are 17 SDGs in total, adopted in 2015. Q17. Answer: a Explanation: The SDGs officially came into effect in 2015. Q18. Answer: b Explanation: SDG 6 deals with clean water and sanitation for all. Q19. Answer: c Explanation: The UNDP released the final report on MDGs. Q20. Answer: a Explanation: Suspended fine particles (like PM2.5) are a major cause of respiratory diseases. Q21. Answer: d Explanation: Chemical contamination is a man-made hazard, not a natural one. Q22. Answer: a Explanation: CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) are not produced naturally—only industrially. Q23. Answer: a Explanation: In cities, road transport is the main source of nitrogen oxides (NOx). Q24. Answer: d Explanation: All listed indoor appliances (gas stoves, wood stoves, kerosene heaters) can produce NOx. Q25. Answer: d Explanation: Hazardous waste is not biodegradable—it remains dangerous for a long time. Q26. Answer: d Explanation: Recycling is not typically used for hazardous waste due to safety risks. Q27. Answer: b Explanation: In developing countries, landfilling is the most common method of disposing solid waste. Q28. Answer: a Explanation: Landfills release methane and leachate, causing both air and water pollution. Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason explains the assertion. Q29. Answer: a Explanation: Biomedical waste contains infectious agents; it must be treated separately. Both statements are true, and R explains A. Q30. Answer: b Explanation: A.G. Tansley coined the term “Ecosystem” in 1935. Q31. Answer: c Explanation: The Pyramid of Energy is always upright because only 10% of energy transfers to the next level. Q32. Answer: b Explanation: Biomass is the total dry weight of all organisms at a trophic level. Q33. Answer: b Explanation: Higher trophic levels have fewer individuals because energy decreases at each level. Q34. Answer: d Explanation: Only 10% of energy is transferred from one level to the next in an ecosystem. Q35. Answer: a Explanation: A population census is done to count the number of people in a country at a particular time. Q36. Answer: c Explanation: Demography is the study of population size, composition, and distribution. Q37. Answer: b Explanation: HDI measures development based on life expectancy, education, and per capita income. Q38. Answer: d Explanation: Demographic dividend comes from a high working-age population, not from density. Q39. Answer: c Explanation: A broad base in a population pyramid indicates high birth rates and a growing population. Q40. Answer: b Explanation: A top-heavy pyramid suggests more elderly people, indicating an aging population. Q41. Answer: a Explanation: High Infant Mortality Rate reduces Life Expectancy; both A and R are true, and R explains A. Q42. Answer: c Explanation: Eltonian pyramids can be inverted in terms of biomass or numbers depending on the ecosystem. Q43. Answer: d Explanation: CFCs are not included in India’s Air Quality Index; they are greenhouse gases. Q44. Answer: b Explanation: Magma becomes lava once it erupts from a volcano. Q45. Answer: c Explanation: Dormant volcanoes are currently inactive but may erupt again in the future. Q46. Answer: c Explanation: Mount Etna (Italy) is an active volcano. Q47. Answer: c Explanation: The crater is the opening through which volcanic material erupts. Q48. Answer: b Explanation: Extinct volcanoes have not erupted in historical times and are not expected to erupt again. Q49. Answer: b Explanation: Gravity is the primary cause of landslides, especially on slopes. Q50. Answer: c Explanation: Deforestation weakens slope stability, increasing the risk of landslides. Q # Answer Explanation 51 C. Earthquake Earthquakes shake land, often triggering landslides naturally. 52 D. Hilly and mountainous areas Steep slopes and loose soil make landslides common in these areas 53 B. Building retaining walls Retaining walls stabilize slopes and reduce landslide risk 54 C. An uncontrolled fire in forests or grasslands Wildfires are large, uncontrolled outdoor fires 55 B. Lightning Natural lightning ignites dry vegetation, starting wildfires 56 C. Drought and dry winds Dry conditions and wind help wildfires spread faster 57 C. Loss of biodiversity and air pollution Wildfires destroy habitats and pollute the air 58 C. Satellites and drones These tech tools help early wildfire detection 59 C. Bhopal Gas Tragedy The 1984 disaster prompted the EPA, 1986 60 B. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) CPCB is the apex body under the EPA 61 B. Speedy resolution of environmental cases NGT provides fast, specialized decisions 62 C. 1 Expert + 1 Judicial Member NGT benches consist of judicial and expert members 63 B. 30 June 2008 NAPCC was officially released then 64 C. 8 There are eight missions in the NAPCC 65 B. National Mission on Green Energy Development This is not a listed mission 66 B. Central and State EPA supports coordination between central and state bodies 67 Richter Scale It measures earthquake magnitude 68 A. Both true, R explains A. Richter scale measures magnitude based on wave amplitude 69 D. All of the above EPA established CPCB, SPCBs, NEAA 70 A. Solar Energy Mission This is an actual NAPCC mission; none listed are incorrect. (Possibly trick Q?) 71 A. Both true, R explains A. NGT handles expedient appeals under environmental law 72 B. Washington Convention Another name for CITES 73 C. Basel Convention Controls cross-border hazardous waste movement 74 B. Stratosphere Montreal Protocol protects the stratospheric ozone 75 C. Montreal Protocol The Vienna Convention led to this protocol 76 B. Agenda 21 A major outcome of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit 77 C. 1992 The UNFCCC was established in the 1992 Earth Summit 78 B. Seven Montreal Protocol had seven revisions by 2016 79 C. Conservation, sustainable use, and fair sharing These are CBD's core goals 80 C. USA The US had not ratified by 2002 Q Answer Explanation 81 C. India The ISA was initiated by India (with support from France) (lbj.utexas.edu) 82 C. Gurugram, India ISA headquarters and Secretariat is located in Gurugram 83 C. 2 °C, aiming for 1.5 °C Paris Agreement aims to limit warming well below 2 °C and pursue 1.5 °C 84 C. 2005 India’s NDC target was based on 2005 emission intensity 85 D. 2070 India pledged to reach carbon neutrality by 2070 at COP26 86 B. Cutting down trees for a palace Amrita Devi and the Bishnois protested tree felling in their villages 87 B. Hugging trees The Chipko movement involved hugging trees to prevent felling 88 C. Hydroelectric project The Silent Valley agitation protected forests from a dam 89 A. Eucalyptus Natural sal forests were threatened by eucalyptus plantations 90 C. Biodiversity conservation and sustainable agriculture Navdanya promotes seed biodiversity and sustainable farming 91 C. Kannada “Appiko” means “to hug” in Kannada 92 B. Commercial felling of trees The Appiko movement fought excessive tree felling 93 C. Narmada NBA protested dams on the Narmada river 94 C. Medha Patkar She was a leading spokesperson in NBA 95 C. Bhagirathi The Tehri Dam stands on the Bhagirathi river 96 C. Sunderlal Bahuguna He was an activist against both Chipko and Tehri Dam 97 B. Strong A magnitude 6.0–6.9 quake is classified as "Strong" 98 A. 91.43% (approx.) Solar and wind contributed about 91.4% of renewable power by 2022 99 — (Oops, question 99 missing—please provide for an accurate match.) 100 B. Phasing out ozone depleting substances Montreal Protocol targets ozone-depleting chemicals 101 A. Ultrafine particulate matter Fine particulates mainly cause atmospheric haze 102 C. (A) true, (R) false Sea-level depends on local factors; global rise isn’t uniform 103 A. Decrease oxygen level Oxygen-depleting wastes harm aquatic oxygen availability 104 B. Make India a solar leader National Solar Mission aims to promote solar leadership 105 C. Environmental Protection Act, 1986 GEAC operates under this Act 106 C. Sustainably available Renewable resources regenerate naturally 107 C. Altering the environment "Modify" refers to changing the environment to meet human needs 108 C. Pyramid of Energy Always upright as energy flows decrease at each trophic level 109 C. A.G. Tansley He coined the term "Ecosystem" in 1935 110 B. Soil, Water, Nutrients These are non-living (abiotic) ecosystem parts 111 B. Only SDGs UNDP Strategic Plan focused on Sustainable Development Goals 112 B. Life expectancy, Education, Income These are the HDI's three core metrics 113 B. Rapidly growing population A wide base and narrow top indicate high birth rates

People, Development and Environment- questions only for NET/ SET

People, Development and Environment 1. Which of the following are the layers of atmosphere? i. Troposphere ii. Thermosphere iii. Lithosphere iv. Exosphere v. Mesosphere Select the correct code: a) i, ii, iii & iv b) ii, iii, iv & iv c) ii., iii & v d) i, ii, iv & v 2. Which layer of atmosphere enables Radio Transmission? a. Exosphere b. Thermosphere c. Ionosphere d. Stratosphere 3. Which is the layer of atmosphere which has its lowest layer at 50 km above sea level that holds the presence of meteors? a) Stratosphere b) Mesosphere c) Troposphere d) Thermosphere 4. Which layer of atmosphere has the optimum height to fly commercial aircrafts? a) Ionosphere b) Stratosphere c) Troposphere d) Lithosphere 5. Match the following: (A) Lithosphere (i) Life (B) Atmosphere (ii) Water (C) Hydrosphere (iii) Stone (D) Biosphere (iv) Air 6. Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer, which plays a crucial role in absorbing harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun? a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Thermosphere d) Lithosphere 7. Assertion (A): The mesosphere is the layer of the atmosphere where most weather phenomena, such as clouds and storms, occur. Reason(R): The mesosphere is characterized by the presence of water vapor and water droplets. a) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and the (R) is a correct explanation of the assertion. b) Both the (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct explanation of the assertion. c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. d) Both (A) and (R) are false 8. Assertion (A): The thermosphere is the hottest layer of the Earth's atmosphere. Reason(R): The thermosphere contains very few gas molecules, but it can reach temperatures of thousands of degrees Celsius. a) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and the (R) is a correct explanation of the assertion. b) Both the (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct explanation of the assertion. c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 9. Given below are two statements: (A) There has to be an integrated approach to achieve targets of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). (R) Many of the SDGs are interconnected. Options: a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) c) (A) is true, but (R) is false d) (A) is false, but (R) is true 10. How many Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were formulated? a) 6 b) 8 c) 12 d) 10 11. What was the target year for achieving the MDGs? a) 2010 b) 2015 c) 2020 d) 2025 12. Which goal among the SDGs focuses on 'Quality Education'? a) Goal 2 b) Goal 3 c) Goal 4 d) Goal 6 13. Which of the following was NOT a goal of MDGs? a) Promote Gender Equality b) Quality Education c) Reduce Child Mortality d) Combat HIV/AIDS 14. Which SDG deals with ‘Climate Action’? a) Goal 11 b) Goal 12 c) Goal 13 d) Goal 15 15. UNDP’s Strategic Plan (2018–2021) does NOT include: a) Building resilience b) Eradicating poverty c) Promoting regional conflicts d) Sustainable transformations 16. What is the number of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)? a) 8 b) 10 c) 15 d) 17 17. SDGs came into effect in: a) 2015 b) 2016 c) 2017 d) 2018 18. Which SDG aims to ‘Ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation’? a) Goal 5 b) Goal 6 c) Goal 7 d) Goal 9 19. Which body released the final MDG report? a) UNEP b) UNHCR c) UNDP d) WHO 20. Which of the following pollutants is the major cause of respiratory diseases? a) Suspended Fine Particles b) Nitrogen Oxides c) Carbon Monoxide d) Volatile Organic Compounds 21. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard? a) Wildfire b) Lightning c) Landslide d) Chemical Contamination 22. Which of the following pollutant gases is not produced both naturally and as a result of industrial activity? a) Chlorofluorocarbons b) Nitrous Oxide c) Methane d) Carbon dioxide 23. The dominant source of pollution due to oxides of nitrogen in urban areas is a) Road Transport b) Commercial Sector c) Energy use in industry d) Power Plants 24. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of nitrogen oxide pollution may be: i. Unvented gas stoves ii. Wood stoves iii. Kerosene heaters Choose the correct code: a) Only (i) and (ii) b) Only (ii) and (iii) c) Only (ii) d) (i), (ii) and (iii) 25. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hazardous waste? a) It is toxic b) It is flammable c) It is reactive d) It is biodegradable 26. Which of the following is NOT a common method of hazardous waste disposal? a) Incineration b) Landfilling c) Deep-well injection d) Recycling 27. Which of the following is the most common method of solid waste disposal in developing countries? a) Incineration b) Landfilling c) Composting d) Recycling 28. Assertion (A): Landfills are a major source of air and water pollution. Reasoning (R): Landfills release methane gas, a greenhouse gas, and leachate, a contaminated liquid, into the environment. a) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is a correct explanation of (A). b) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 29. Assertion (A): Biomedical waste is a hazardous waste that should be treated separately from solid waste. Reasoning (R): Biomedical waste can contain infectious agents that can harm human health. a) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is a correct explanation of (A). b) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 30. Who coined the term "Ecosystem"? a) Charles Elton b) A.G. Tansley c) Ernst Haeckel d) Eugene Odum 31. Which type of ecological pyramid always remains upright (wider at the bottom and narrower at the top)? a) Pyramid of Numbers b) Pyramid of Biomass c) Pyramid of Energy d) All of the above 32. What does "Biomass" in an ecological pyramid represent? a) The number of individuals at each trophic level. b) The total dry weight of organisms at each trophic level. c) The amount of energy transferred at each trophic level. d) The diversity of species at each trophic level. 33. In a Pyramid of Numbers, how do the individuals at higher trophic levels typically compare to those at lower levels? a) Higher levels have more individuals. b) Higher levels have fewer individuals. c) The number remains constant across levels. d) The relationship varies unpredictably. 34. What is the approximate percentage of energy transferred from one trophic level to the next in an ecosystem? a) 100% b) 50% c) 25% d) 10% 35. What is the primary purpose of conducting a population census? a) To determine the population of a country at a specific point in time. b) To analyze the distribution of income within a population. c) To assess the quality of healthcare services in a region. d) To track the migration patterns of individuals. 36. Which field of study focuses on the statistical analysis of populations, including their size, composition, and distribution? a) Geography b) Anthropology c) Demography d) Sociology 37. What does the Human Development Index (HDI) primarily measure? a) Economic growth of a country. b) Life expectancy, education, and per capita income. c) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per capita. d) Industrialization and urbanization rates. 38. Assertion (A): An increase in population density is a prerequisite for a country to experience the demographic dividend. Reasoning (R): The demographic dividend occurs when a country experiences a higher proportion of its population in the working-age group compared to dependent age groups. a) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is a correct explanation of (A). b) Both the (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 39. In a population pyramid, a broad base indicates: a) A declining birth rate. b) An aging population. c) A high birth rate. d) A stable population. 40. A top-heavy population pyramid, with more elderly people, suggests: a) A young and growing population. b) An aging population. c) High birth rates and low mortality rates. d) A predominantly male population. 41. Assertion (A): In a population with a high Infant Mortality Rate (IMR), the Life Expectancy Rate (LER) is typically lower. Reasoning (R): Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is a key indicator of the number of infants who die before their first birthday, while Life Expectancy Rate (LER) represents the average number of years a person can expect to live. a) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is a correct explanation of (A). b) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 42. In ecological studies, Eltonian Pyramids represent the biomass or energy at different trophic levels within an ecosystem. Which of the following statements about Eltonian Pyramids is correct? a) Eltonian Pyramids are always pyramid-shaped, with each trophic level having more biomass or energy than the one below. b) Eltonian Pyramids are a visual representation of the biodiversity within an ecosystem. c) Eltonian Pyramids can be inverted, with higher trophic levels having less biomass or energy than the one below. d) Eltonian Pyramids are primarily used to measure population density. 43. In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following pollutants is not included? Carbon Monoxide Fine Particulate Matter Ozone Chlorofluorocarbons 44. What is magma called when it comes out of a volcano? A. Ash B. Lava C. Steam D. Rock 45. A volcano that is not currently active but may erupt in the future is called: A. Active volcano B. Extinct volcano C. Dormant volcano D. Silent volcano 46. Which of the following is an example of an active volcano? A. Mount Kilimanjaro B. Mount Fuji C. Mount Etna D. Mount Kenya 47. The opening of a volcano through which materials erupt is called: A. Fault B. Epicenter C. Crater D. Rift 48. Which type of volcano has not erupted in historical times and is unlikely to erupt again? A. Dormant B. Extinct C. Active D. Composite 49. What is the main cause of landslides? A. Solar energy B. Gravity C. Wind D. Ocean tides 50. Which human activity increases the risk of landslides? A. Afforestation B. River fishing C. Deforestation D. Organic farming 51. Which of the following is a natural trigger for landslides? A. Festival lighting B. Mining C. Earthquake D. Road construction 52. Landslides are more common in which type of area? A. Deserts B. Plains C. Coastal beaches D. Hilly and mountainous areas 53. What is a preventive measure against landslides? A. Burning trees B. Building retaining walls C. Digging deep wells D. Overgrazing 54. What is a wildfire? A. A house fire B. A controlled fire in a fireplace C. An uncontrolled fire in forests or grasslands D. A fire on a stove 55. Which of these is a natural cause of wildfires? A. Fireworks B. Lightning C. Burning garbage D. Campfires 56. Which condition makes wildfires spread faster? A. Heavy rainfall B. Cold climate C. Drought and dry winds D. Cloudy weather 57. What is a negative impact of wildfires? A. Increase in forest area B. Cooling of atmosphere C. Loss of biodiversity and air pollution D. Creation of lakes 58. What can help in the early detection of wildfires? A. CCTV cameras B. Rain gauges C. Satellites and drones D. Loudspeakers 59. The Environmental Protection Act (EPA), 1986, was enacted by the Government of India primarily in the light of which major environmental disaster? a) Chernobyl Nuclear Disaster b) Love Canal Disaster c) Bhopal Gas Tragedy d) Exxon Valdez Oil Spill 60. Which of the following bodies is described as an "apex body constituted by the Ministry of Environment & Forests under the Environmental Protection Act"? a) National Green Tribunal (NGT) b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) c) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) d) Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) 61. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) Act, 2010, primarily aims to ensure: a) Formulation of new environmental policies. b) Speedy recognition and resolution of cases related to environmental issues. c) International cooperation on environmental protection. d) Direct financial aid for environmental conservation projects. 62. According to the NGT Act, a judiciary bench typically consists of how many Expert Members and Judicial Members taking charge of cases? a) 2 Expert Members and 1 Judicial Member b) 1 Expert Member and 2 Judicial Members c) 1 Expert Member and 1 Judicial Member d) 2 Expert Members and 2 Judicial Members 63. When was the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) released in India? a) 5th June 2007 b) 30th June 2008 c) 22nd April 2009 d) 15th August 2010 64. The core of the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) consists of how many National Missions? a) 5 b) 7 c) 8 d) 10 65. Which of the following is NOT one of the 8 National Missions under the NAPCC? a) National Solar Mission b) National Mission on Green Energy Development c) National Water Mission d) National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem 66. The Environmental Protection Act (EPA), 1986, aims at better coordination between which governmental systems for environmental protection? a) International and National b) Central and State c) Public and Private d) Legislative and Judiciary 67. What is the primary scale used to measure the magnitude of earthquakes? Richter Scale Saffir-Simpson Scale Fujita Scale 68. Beaufort SAssertion (A): The Richter magnitude scale is used to measure the intensity of an earthquake. Reasoning (R): The Richter magnitude scale is based on the amplitude of seismic waves recorded at different distances from the earthquake's epicenter. a) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is a correct explanation of (A). b) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 69. The EPA, 1986, established which of the following? The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) The State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) The National Environmental Appellate Authority (NEAA) All of the above 70. The NAPCC, 2008, outlines eight core national missions to address climate change. Which of the following is NOT one of these missions? Solar Energy Mission National Water Mission Sustainable Habitat Mission Energy Efficiency Mission 71. Assertion (A): The National Green Tribunal (NGT) Act, 2010, provides for the establishment of a specialized tribunal to handle cases related to environmental protection and conservation. Reasoning (R): The NGT has the power to hear appeals and resolve disputes arising from the implementation of environmental laws. a) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is a correct explanation of (A). b) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 72. The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is also known as the: a) Rio Convention b) Washington Convention c) Geneva Convention d) Basel Convention 73. Which international agreement primarily aimed to control the cross-border movement of hazardous waste, especially from developed to developing countries? a) Montreal Protocol b) Vienna Convention c) Basel Convention d) CITES 74. The Montreal Protocol, signed in 1987, specifically aimed to protect which part of the Earth's atmosphere? a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Ionosphere d) Exosphere 75. The Vienna Convention for the Protection of Ozone Layer (1985) directly gave way to which more specific international agreement? a) Kyoto Protocol b) Paris Agreement c) Montreal Protocol d) Basel Convention 76. Which of the following was an outcome of the Rio Summit (Earth Summit) in 1992? a) Establishment of the World Trade Organization (WTO) b) Formulation of Agenda 21 c) Signing of the Kyoto Protocol d) Creation of the Green Climate Fund 77. The UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was established in which year? a) 1985 b) 1987 c) 1992 d) 1997 78. How many revisions did the Montreal Protocol undergo between 1990 and 2016? a) Five b) Seven c) Nine d) Eleven 79. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) primarily focuses on which of the following goals? a) Reducing greenhouse gas emissions b) Controlling transboundary movement of hazardous waste c) Conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use, and fair sharing of genetic benefits d) Promoting international trade of endangered species 80. Which country, despite being a major emitter, had not ratified the Kyoto Protocol by 2002 according to the provided text? a) India b) China c) USA d) Japan 81. The International Solar Alliance (ISA) was an initiative launched by which country? a) France b) Germany c) India d) Brazil 82. Where are the headquarters and interim Secretariat of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) located? a) New Delhi, India b) Paris, France c) Gurugram, India d) Washington D.C., USA 83. The Paris Agreement (2015) aims to keep the increase in global warming well below which temperature target? a) 3°C b) 2.5°C c) 2°C, aiming for 1.5°C d) 1°C 84. India's original Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) under the Paris Agreement included a target to reduce the emission intensity of its GDP by 33-35% by 2030 from which base year? a) 1990 b) 2000 c) 2005 d) 2010 85. According to India's Panchamrita Strategy for Climate announced at COP26, what is India's target for achieving Carbon Neutrality? a) 2030 b) 2040 c) 2050 d) 2070 86. The Bishnoi Movement, involving Amrita Devi and the villagers, is historically significant for its protest against: a) Industrial pollution b) Cutting down trees for a palace c) Dam construction d) Mining activities 87. The Chipko Movement, led by Sunderlal Bahuguna, is famously associated with the act of: a) Blocking roads b) Hugging trees c) Forming human chains d) Filing lawsuits 88. The Save Silent Valley Movement was a protest to protect evergreen forests in Kerala from being flooded by a: a) Thermal power project b) Nuclear power plant c) Hydroelectric project d) Road construction project 89. The Jungle Bachao Andolan in Jharkhand protested against the replacement of natural sal forests with which type of trees for profit? a) Eucalyptus b) Pine c) Teak d) Banyan 90. The Navdanya Movement, led by Vandana Shiva, is known for promoting: a) Genetic engineering in agriculture b) Large-scale industrial farming c) Biodiversity conservation and sustainable agriculture d) Chemical fertilizers and pesticides 91. The Appiko Movement, which started in Karnataka in 1983, means "to hug" in which language? a) Hindi b) Tamil c) Kannada d) Malayalam 92. The primary aim of the Appiko Movement was to prevent: a) Pollution from industries b) Commercial felling of trees c) Construction of large dams d) Displacement of tribal communities 93. The Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA) started in 1985 primarily protested against the construction of dams across which river? a) Ganga b) Yamuna c) Narmada d) Godavari 94. Which of the following individuals was a leading spokesperson for the Narmada Bachao Andolan? a) Sunderlal Bahuguna b) Amrita Devi c) Medha Patkar d) Sugathakumari 95. The Tehri Dam, the highest dam in India, is situated on which river in Uttarakhand? a) Alaknanda b) Mandakini c) Bhagirathi d) Ganga 96. Which of the following leaders was involved in both the Chipko Movement and the Tehri Dam conflict? a) Medha Patkar b) Baba Amte c) Sunderlal Bahuguna d) Vandana Shiva 97. An earthquake of a magnitude in the range of 6.0 to 6.9 on the Richter Scale is considered a) Moderate b) Strong c) Major d) Great 98. As per Indian Government's target for exploiting renewable energy sources, the percentage share of solar and wind energy in the total power generation from renewable energy resources by the year 2022 will be about a) 91.43% (approx.) b) 57.14% (approx.) c) 50% (approx.) d) 60% (approx.) 99. Match List I with List II 100. Montreal protocol aims at a) Reduction in emissions of greenhouse gases b) Phasing out ozone depleting substances c) Prohibiting trans-boundary movement of hazardous waste d) Enhancing cooperation among UN member states for peaceful uses of nuclear energy 101. Atmospheric haze is mainly caused by a) Ultra Fine Size Particulate Matter b) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur c) Ozone d) Carbon dioxide & Carbon monoxide 102. Assertion (A): The change in sea-level at any coastal location depends on the sum of global, regional and local factors. Reasoning (R): Therefore, the global mean sea level rise translates into a uniform rise in sea level around the world. a) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is a correct explanation of (A). b) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 103. Oxygen demanding wastes a) Decrease oxygen level in water b) Increase oxygen level in water c) Does not change oxygen level in water d) Increase the temperature of water 104. Which of the following is the primary objective of the National Solar Mission under the NAPCC? a) To promote the use of fossil fuels. b) To make India a global leader in solar energy. c) To increase reliance on nuclear power. d) To encourage only off-grid solar applications. 105. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions under which Indian environmental act? a) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 b) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 c) Environmental Protection Act, 1986 d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 106. Which of the following is a characteristic of a "Renewable Resource"? a) Gets exhausted after single use. b) Cannot be renewed even after use. c) Sustainably available in adequate quantities. d) Primarily derived from fossil fuels. 107. The "Modify" form of Human-Environment Interaction involves: a) Adjusting lifestyles to environmental conditions. b) Reliance on the environment for basic needs. c) Altering the environment to suit human needs. d) Observing environmental phenomena without intervention. 108. In the context of Ecological Pyramids, which pyramid is always upright and why? a) Pyramid of Numbers, due to higher biomass at lower levels. b) Pyramid of Biomass, due to energy transfer efficiency. c) Pyramid of Energy, as energy decreases at each successive trophic level. d) All pyramids, as they represent stable ecosystems. 109. The term "Ecosystem" was coined by: a) Charles Elton b) Alexander von Humboldt c) A.G. Tansley d) Ernst Haeckel 110. Which of the following components are considered "Abiotic Components" of a natural ecosystem? a) Producers, Consumers, Decomposers b) Soil, Water, Nutrients c) Forests, Deserts, Grasslands d) Humans, Animals, Plants 111. The UNDP Strategic Plan (2018–2021) aimed to help nations achieve which global goals? a) Only Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) b) Only Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) c) Both MDGs and SDGs d) Economic Growth Goals (EGGs) 112. The Human Development Index (HDI) measures development based on which three key components? a) GDP, Inflation, Employment Rate b) Life expectancy, Education, Per capita income c) Population growth, Urbanization, Industrialization d) Carbon emissions, Water consumption, Forest cover 113. A Population Pyramid with a very wide base and a narrow top indicates: a) An aging population with low birth rates. b) A rapidly growing population with high birth rates. c) A stable population with balanced birth and death rates. d) A population experiencing significant outward migration.

EDU 10.02 Unit 1 Self-Instructional Strategies

 

Self-Instructional Strategies

                Self-instructional strategies empower learners to manage their own learning process, allowing for individualized pacing and immediate feedback. They emphasize active engagement and provide structured pathways to acquire knowledge and skills independently.

❖ Programmed Instruction (PI)

            Programmed Instruction is a systematically designed instructional approach rooted in behaviorist principles, particularly those of B.F. Skinner. It aims to optimize learning by breaking down complex material into small, manageable units and providing immediate reinforcement for correct responses.

Core Principles and Mechanics:

• Behavioral Foundation: Based on the theory of verbal behavior and operant conditioning, where learning is seen as a change in behavior resulting from interaction with the environment and reinforcement.
• Logical Sequencing: Material is presented in a carefully constructed, logical, and empirically validated sequence to facilitate cumulative learning.
• Self-Teaching: Learners progress through the material autonomously, often using specialized textbooks or teaching machines.
• Active Responding: Learners are required to actively engage with each segment of information by formulating or selecting a response. This active participation is crucial for knowledge assimilation.
• Immediate Reinforcement/Feedback: Upon making a response, learners receive immediate confirmation of correctness or are directed to corrective information. This rapid feedback loop reinforces correct understanding and prevents the consolidation of errors.
• Small Increments (Frames): The instructional content is divided into very small, discrete units called "frames." Each frame presents a limited amount of new information or a single concept.
• Self-Pacing: Learners control the rate at which they move through the material, advancing only after demonstrating comprehension of the current frame. This accommodates individual learning speeds.
• Objective: To present material in small, digestible increments to ensure high rates of correct responses and efficient learning.

❑ Linear/Extrinsic Programming

• Originator: B.F. Skinner.
• Structure: Characterized by a single, predetermined sequence of frames that all learners follow without deviation. It's often described as a "straight line" program.
• Frame Characteristics: Frames are typically very small, presenting minimal information at a time.
• Learner Response: Learners are required to construct their own responses (e.g., fill-in-the-blanks, short answers). This demands recall and application of knowledge.
• Control: The programmer, through the fixed sequence and design of frames, externally controls the learner's responses and progression.
• Error Rate: Designed for a very low error rate (typically around 5%), aiming to build confidence through frequent success.
• Behavioral Modification: Highly effective for shaping specific behaviors and instilling precise knowledge.
• Key Principles: Relies heavily on the principles of small steps, active responding, minimum errors, self-pacing, and knowledge of results.

❑ Branching/Intrinsic Programming

• Originator: Norman A. Crowder.
• Structure: Allows for multiple pathways based on the learner's responses, creating a "branching" structure.
• Frame Characteristics: Frames are comparatively larger, containing more information, often integrating two or three related ideas or sequences.
• Learner Response: Learners select their response from multiple-choice options. This shifts the focus from recall to recognition and analysis.
• Diagnostic and Remedial: A defining feature is its diagnostic capability. If a learner chooses a correct answer, they advance. If they choose an incorrect answer, they are "branched" to a remedial frame that explains the error, provides clarification, and then guides them back to the original question or a similar one.
• Application: More suited for teaching broader concepts and providing immediate corrective feedback for common misconceptions. It provides remedial solutions within the learning process.

❖ Instructional Modules

Instructional modules are self-contained, independent units of study designed to help learners achieve specific, well-defined objectives. They offer a flexible and individualized approach to learning, allowing learners to control their pace and focus on particular areas of interest or need.

Definition: Russel (1974) defines a module as "an instructional package dealing with a single conceptual unit of subject-matter."

Key Characteristics and Purpose:

• Self-Contained Unit: Each module is a complete instructional package on a specific topic or skill, minimizing the need for external resources during the module's completion.
• Defined Objectives: Modules begin with clear, measurable learning objectives, informing the learner precisely what they are expected to achieve. This provides direction and purpose.
• Individualized Instruction: Modules inherently support individualized learning by allowing learners to progress at their own speed and focus on material relevant to their specific needs.
• Flexibility of Use: They can be used for complete self-instruction, as supplementary material to traditional classroom teaching, or for remedial purposes.
• Comprehensive Package: A typical module includes:
  • One or more learning objectives.
  • Appropriate learning materials (e.g., readings, diagrams, explanations).
  • Varied learning methods and activities (e.g., practice exercises, problem-solving tasks).
  • Associated criterion-referenced measures (assessments to check if objectives have been met).
• Trainer Skill: Developing modules is an important skill for trainers and educators as it involves structuring content logically and designing effective self-learning pathways.
• Future Role of Teachers: The principles underlying modules align with the evolving role of teachers, shifting from direct content delivery to facilitating learning, guiding independent study, and leveraging diverse resources.

Module I : Renaissance and freedom movement

 

Renaissance: MCQs 

1. Who is considered the "Father of Renaissance"?
   a) Leonardo da Vinci
   b) Petrarch
   c) Michelangelo
   d) Raphael
   Answer: b) Petrarch
2. What was the most significant invention that boosted the Renaissance movement?
   a) Telescope
   b) Microscope
   c) Printing Press
   d) Steam Engine
   Answer: c) Printing Press
3. The Renaissance began in which country?
   a) France
   b) England
   c) Italy
   d) Germany
   Answer: c) Italy
4. Which Renaissance artist is famous for the painting "Mona Lisa"?
   a) Raphael
   b) Michelangelo
   c) Donatello
   d) Leonardo da Vinci
   Answer: d) Leonardo da Vinci
5. Who wrote the political treatise The Prince?
   a) Thomas More
   b) Niccolò Machiavelli
   c) Erasmus
   d) Martin Luther
   Answer: b) Niccolò Machiavelli
6. The term "Renaissance" means:
   a) Rebirth
   b) Revolution
   c) Restoration
   d) Revival
   Answer: a) Rebirth
7. Which of these is a famous work by Michelangelo?
   a) The Last Supper
   b) The Sistine Chapel Ceiling
   c) School of Athens
   d) Vitruvian Man
   Answer: b) The Sistine Chapel Ceiling
8. Who is known as the "Father of Modern Science"?
   a) Galileo Galilei
   b) Copernicus
   c) Newton
   d) Kepler
   Answer: a) Galileo Galilei
9. Which invention by Johannes Gutenberg revolutionized the spread of knowledge?
   a) Typewriter
   b) Telescope
   c) Printing Press
   d) Compass
   Answer: c) Printing Press
10. Who painted "The School of Athens"?
    a) Raphael
    b) Michelangelo
    c) Leonardo da Vinci
    d) Donatello
    Answer: a) Raphael
11. Which English playwright is considered a key figure of the Renaissance?
    a) Christopher Marlowe
    b) William Shakespeare
    c) Ben Jonson
    d) John Donne
    Answer: b) William Shakespeare
12. The Renaissance saw the revival of which ancient cultures?
    a) Indian and Chinese
    b) Egyptian and Persian
    c) Greek and Roman
    d) Mayan and Aztec
    Answer: c) Greek and Roman
13. What was the main theme of Renaissance art?
    a) Religious Symbolism
    b) Humanism
    c) Abstract Forms
    d) Nature Worship
    Answer: b) Humanism
14. Which scientist proposed the heliocentric model during the Renaissance?
    a) Galileo
    b) Copernicus
    c) Kepler
    d) Newton
    Answer: b) Copernicus
15. Which of these is NOT a Renaissance figure?
    a) Martin Luther
    b) Isaac Newton
    c) Michelangelo
    d) Raphael
    Answer: b) Isaac Newton
16. Which Renaissance writer is known for his essays on humanism?
    a) Montaigne
    b) Erasmus
    c) Machiavelli
    d) Shakespeare
    Answer: a) Montaigne
17. Who sculpted the statue of David?
    a) Michelangelo
    b) Donatello
    c) Leonardo da Vinci
    d) Bernini
    Answer: a) Michelangelo
18. What was the primary focus of Renaissance architecture?
    a) Gothic Styles
    b) Harmony and Proportion
    c) Abstract Design
    d) Verticality
    Answer: b) Harmony and Proportion
19. Which famous Renaissance explorer discovered the Americas in 1492?
    a) Ferdinand Magellan
    b) Christopher Columbus
    c) Vasco da Gama
    d) Amerigo Vespucci
    Answer: b) Christopher Columbus
20. What was a significant feature of Renaissance education?
    a) Focus on Religious Studies
    b) Emphasis on Liberal Arts
    c) Training in Military Tactics
    d) Memorization of Classical Texts
    Answer: b) Emphasis on Liberal Arts

Freedom Movement: MCQs (50 Questions)

1. In which year was the Indian National Congress formed?
   a) 1885
   b) 1857
   c) 1905
   d) 1920
   Answer: a) 1885
2. Who gave the slogan “Give me blood, and I shall give you freedom”?
   a) Mahatma Gandhi
   b) Subhas Chandra Bose
   c) Bhagat Singh
   d) Jawaharlal Nehru
   Answer: b) Subhas Chandra Bose
3. Which movement was launched in response to the partition of Bengal in 1905?
   a) Quit India Movement
   b) Civil Disobedience Movement
   c) Swadeshi Movement
   d) Khilafat Movement
   Answer: c) Swadeshi Movement
4. The Dandi March was associated with which movement?
   a) Quit India Movement
   b) Non-Cooperation Movement
   c) Civil Disobedience Movement
   d) Swadeshi Movement
   Answer: c) Civil Disobedience Movement
5. Who authored the book Hind Swaraj?
   a) B.R. Ambedkar
   b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
   c) Mahatma Gandhi
   d) Jawaharlal Nehru
   Answer: c) Mahatma Gandhi
6. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred in which year?
   a) 1919
   b) 1920
   c) 1915
   d) 1925
   Answer: a) 1919
7. Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?
   a) Lord Mountbatten
   b) C. Rajagopalachari
   c) Jawaharlal Nehru
   d) Sardar Patel
   Answer: a) Lord Mountbatten
8. The Non-Cooperation Movement was called off due to which incident?
   a) Chauri Chaura Incident
   b) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
   c) Simon Commission
   d) Partition of Bengal
   Answer: a) Chauri Chaura Incident
9. Who was the founder of the Indian National Army (INA)?
   a) Rash Behari Bose
   b) Subhas Chandra Bose
   c) Bhagat Singh
   d) Lala Lajpat Rai
   Answer: a) Rash Behari Bose
10. Which event is considered the "First War of Indian Independence"?
    a) Revolt of 1857
    b) Partition of Bengal
    c) Quit India Movement
    d) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
    Answer: a) Revolt of 1857